saut perly
:
il est clair que: pr tt x£]-1;1[
tan(arcsin(x))=sin(arcsin(x))/(cos(arcsin(x)) = x/V(1-x²).
car cos(arcsin(x))=V(1-sin²(arcsin(x))=V(1-x²).
alors:
arcsin(x) = arctan(x/V(1-x²))
on pose x/V(1-x²) = y on trouve que x= y/V(1+y²)
alors:
arctan(y)= arcsin(y/V(1+y²))
d'où:
sin(arctan(y))= y/V(1+y²).
C.Q.F.D
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Lahoucine
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